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Given f'(c) = 0, f''(c) = 0, and f'''(c) eq 0, what can be concluded about the point x=c?

Mathematics

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Answer

D

Step-by-step solution

3 steps
  1. Understand the conditions given.

    We are given that f′(c)=0f'(c) = 0, f′′(c)=0f''(c) = 0, and f′′′(c)≠0f'''(c) \neq 0.

  2. Apply the higher-order derivative test.

    • If f′(c)=0f'(c) = 0, x=cx=c is a critical point.
    • If f′′(c)=0f''(c) = 0 as well, the second derivative test is inconclusive for determining local extrema. We must look at higher-order derivatives.
    • The higher-order derivative test states that if f′(c)=0f'(c) = 0, f′′(c)=0f''(c) = 0, ..., f(n−1)(c)=0f^{(n-1)}(c) = 0, but f(n)(c)≠0f^{(n)}(c) \neq 0:
      • If nn is even, then x=cx=c is a local extremum (maximum if f(n)(c)<0f^{(n)}(c) < 0, minimum if f(n)(c)>0f^{(n)}(c) > 0).
      • If nn is odd, then x=cx=c is a point of inflection.
  3. Determine the nature of x=cx=c.

    In this case, the first non-zero derivative at x=cx=c is f′′′(c)f'''(c), which is the third derivative. The order n=3n=3 is an odd number.

    Therefore, x=cx=c is a point of inflection.

    The correct option is D.

    D. A point of inflection\boxed{\text{D. A point of inflection}}

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