We read your photo as:

If m is an odd integer, prove that (m4 + 4m2 + 11) / 16 is an integer. If a, b, c are positive real numbers, prove that sqrt(b/a) sqrt(c/b) sqrt(a/c) = 1.

Mathematics

ScanSolve AI Answer

Step-by-step solution

5 steps
  1. Solve Question 1.

    Let mm be an odd integer. We need to show that the number m4+4m2+1116\frac{m^4 + 4m^2 + 11}{16} is an integer.
    Since mm is an odd integer, we can write m=2k+1m = 2k+1 for some integer kk.

    First, let's find m2m^2:

    m2=(2k+1)2=4k2+4k+1=4k(k+1)+1m^2 = (2k+1)^2 = 4k^2 + 4k + 1 = 4k(k+1) + 1

    The product of two consecutive integers, k(k+1)k(k+1), is always an even number. So, k(k+1)=2jk(k+1) = 2j for some integer jj.
    Therefore, m2=4(2j)+1=8j+1m^2 = 4(2j) + 1 = 8j + 1. This means m2≡1(mod8)m^2 \equiv 1 \pmod{8}.

    Next, let's find m4m^4:

    m4=(m2)2=(8j+1)2=64j2+16j+1=16(4j2+j)+1m^4 = (m^2)^2 = (8j+1)^2 = 64j^2 + 16j + 1 = 16(4j^2 + j) + 1

    This means m4≡1(mod16)m^4 \equiv 1 \pmod{16}. Let p=4j2+jp = 4j^2 + j, which is an integer. So, m4=16p+1m^4 = 16p + 1.

    Now substitute m4=16p+1m^4 = 16p+1 and m2=8j+1m^2 = 8j+1 into the given expression:

    m4+4m2+1116=(16p+1)+4(8j+1)+1116\frac{m^4 + 4m^2 + 11}{16} = \frac{(16p+1) + 4(8j+1) + 11}{16} =16p+1+32j+4+1116= \frac{16p + 1 + 32j + 4 + 11}{16} =16p+32j+1616= \frac{16p + 32j + 16}{16}

    Factor out 16 from the numerator:

    =16(p+2j+1)16= \frac{16(p + 2j + 1)}{16} =p+2j+1= p + 2j + 1

    Since pp and jj are integers, their sum p+2j+1p+2j+1 is also an integer.
    Thus, the number m4+4m2+1116\frac{m^4 + 4m^2 + 11}{16} is an integer.
    The expression simplifies to an integer p+2j+1.\boxed{\text{The expression simplifies to an integer } p+2j+1.}

  2. Solve Question 2.

    Given that a,b,ca, b, c are positive real numbers, we need to show that ba×cb×ac=1\sqrt{\frac{b}{a}} \times \sqrt{\frac{c}{b}} \times \sqrt{\frac{a}{c}} = 1.
    We can use the property of square roots that x×y=xy\sqrt{x} \times \sqrt{y} = \sqrt{xy} and xy=xy\sqrt{\frac{x}{y}} = \frac{\sqrt{x}}{\sqrt{y}}.
    Combine the terms under a single square root:

    ba×cb×ac=ba×cb×ac\sqrt{\frac{b}{a}} \times \sqrt{\frac{c}{b}} \times \sqrt{\frac{a}{c}} = \sqrt{\frac{b}{a} \times \frac{c}{b} \times \frac{a}{c}}

    Multiply the fractions inside the square root:

    =b⋅c⋅aa⋅b⋅c= \sqrt{\frac{b \cdot c \cdot a}{a \cdot b \cdot c}}

    Cancel out the common terms in the numerator and denominator:

    =1= \sqrt{1} =1= 1

    Thus, ba×cb×ac=1\sqrt{\frac{b}{a}} \times \sqrt{\frac{c}{b}} \times \sqrt{\frac{a}{c}} = 1.
    ba×cb×ac=1\boxed{\sqrt{\frac{b}{a}} \times \sqrt{\frac{c}{b}} \times \sqrt{\frac{a}{c}} = 1}

  3. Solve Question 3.

    Given n=32\sqrt{n} = \frac{3}{2}. We need to find −n-\sqrt{n}.
    Substitute the given value of n\sqrt{n} into the expression −n-\sqrt{n}:

    −n=−(32)-\sqrt{n} = -\left(\frac{3}{2}\right) −n=−32-\sqrt{n} = -\frac{3}{2}

    −32\boxed{-\frac{3}{2}}

  4. Solve Question 4.

    Let aa and bb be positive real numbers. We need to show that ab+ba≥2\frac{a}{b} + \frac{b}{a} \ge 2.
    We know that for any real number xx, (x−y)2≥0(x-y)^2 \ge 0.
    Consider the expression (ab−ba)2\left(\sqrt{\frac{a}{b}} - \sqrt{\frac{b}{a}}\right)^2. Since aa and bb are positive, ab\sqrt{\frac{a}{b}} and ba\sqrt{\frac{b}{a}} are real numbers.
    Therefore,

    (ab−ba)2≥0\left(\sqrt{\frac{a}{b}} - \sqrt{\frac{b}{a}}\right)^2 \ge 0

    Expand the square:

    (ab)2−2abba+(ba)2≥0\left(\sqrt{\frac{a}{b}}\right)^2 - 2\sqrt{\frac{a}{b}}\sqrt{\frac{b}{a}} + \left(\sqrt{\frac{b}{a}}\right)^2 \ge 0 ab−2ab⋅ba+ba≥0\frac{a}{b} - 2\sqrt{\frac{a}{b} \cdot \frac{b}{a}} + \frac{b}{a} \ge 0 ab−21+ba≥0\frac{a}{b} - 2\sqrt{1} + \frac{b}{a} \ge 0 ab−2+ba≥0\frac{a}{b} - 2 + \frac{b}{a} \ge 0

    Add 2 to both sides of the inequality:

    ab+ba≥2\frac{a}{b} + \frac{b}{a} \ge 2

    This proves the statement.
    ab+ba≥2\boxed{\frac{a}{b} + \frac{b}{a} \ge 2}

  5. Solve Question 5.

    Let xx be a real number. We need to show that x2+1x2≥2x^2 + \frac{1}{x^2} \ge 2, for x≠0x \ne 0.
    We know that the square of any real number is non-negative.
    Consider the expression (x−1x)2\left(x - \frac{1}{x}\right)^2. Since xx is a real number and x≠0x \ne 0, x−1xx - \frac{1}{x} is a real number.
    Therefore,

    (x−1x)2≥0\left(x - \frac{1}{x}\right)^2 \ge 0

    Expand the square:

    x2−2⋅x⋅1x+(1x)2≥0x^2 - 2 \cdot x \cdot \frac{1}{x} + \left(\frac{1}{x}\right)^2 \ge 0 x2−2+1x2≥0x^2 - 2 + \frac{1}{x^2} \ge 0

    Add 2 to both sides of the inequality:

    x2+1x2≥2x^2 + \frac{1}{x^2} \ge 2

    This proves the statement.
    x2+1x2≥2\boxed{x^2 + \frac{1}{x^2} \ge 2}

Was this helpful?

Still stuck on this one?

Ask a follow-up, and the answer starts from this question.

Got a different question?Ask your own question
Handwritten step-by-step solution preview

Handwritten Step-by-Step Solution

Get this as a handwritten image on WhatsApp — like a tutor wrote it for you.

Try on WhatsApp