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A centrally acting drug safe in pregnancy for hypertension is Methyldopa. Propranolol is a beta-blocker, Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor (contraindicated in pregnancy), and Isoproterenol is a non-selective beta agonist. The correct answer is d. d) Methyldopa Question 2: Oral fungal infections (thrush) are a common side effect of inhaled glucocorticoids due to local immunosuppression. The correct answer is d. d) Glucocorticoid inhalation Question 3: Phenylephrine is a selective alpha-1 adrenergic agonist that causes vasoconstriction and increases blood pressure, making it suitable for orthostatic hypotension. Metoprolol and Timolol are beta-blockers, and Salmeterol is a beta-2 agonist. The correct answer is c. c) Phenylephrine Question 4: For a chronic smoker diagnosed with COPD, the first and most crucial step in management is to stop smoking, as it addresses the underlying cause and prevents further disease progression. The correct answer is d. d) Stop smoking Question 5: Inhaled corticosteroids are considered the safest and most effective controller therapy for moderate asthma in pregnant women. Ephedrine and Codeine are generally avoided, and long-term oral prednisolone has more systemic side effects. The correct answer is b. b) Inhaled corticosteroids Question 6: Metformin is contraindicated in patients with renal impairment due to the increased risk of lactic acidosis. The correct answer is a. a) Metformin Question 7: Beta-1 blockers are used in angina pectoris, hypertension, and myocardial infarction. They are not typically used for glaucoma; beta-blockers used for glaucoma are usually non-selective (e.g., Timolol) or selective beta-1 blockers (e.g., Betaxolol) applied topically to reduce aqueous humor production, but the question asks about general use, and glaucoma is not a primary systemic indication for beta-1 blockers in the same way as the other conditions. The correct answer is a. a) Glaucoma Question 8: Sodium cromoglycate is a mast cell stabilizer, which is considered a membrane-stabilizing agent used in asthma prophylaxis. Zafirlukast, Montelukast, and Zileuton are leukotriene modifiers. The correct answer is d. d) Sodium cromoglycate Question 9: Pharmacodynamics is the study of what drugs do to the body, including their mechanisms of action and pharmacological effects. The correct answer is c. c) What drugs do to the body Question 10: Non-selective beta-2 agonists can stimulate beta-1 receptors in the heart, leading to side effects like tachycardia. Peripheral vasoconstriction is associated with alpha-1 agonism, dry mouth with anticholinergics, and depression of the breathing center with opioids. The correct answer is b. b) Tachycardia Question 11: Alpha-1 receptor antagonists like tamsulosin, terazosin, and alfuzosin relax smooth muscle in the prostate and bladder neck, making them efficacious in treating symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). The correct answer is a. a) Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) Question 12: Cromolyn sodium (sodium cromoglycate) is a mast cell stabilizer that is considered a safe option for prophylaxis in children with allergic asthma and rhinitis. Theophylline has a narrow therapeutic index, Codeine is a cough suppressant, and Prednisolone is a corticosteroid with more side effects for long-term prophylaxis. The correct answer is d. d) Cromolyn sodium Question 13: Formoterol is a long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) with a duration of action typically greater than 12 hours, making it suitable for nocturnal asthma. Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA). The correct answer is a. a) Formoterol Question 14: Abrupt cessation of clonidine, an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used to treat hypertension, can lead to a severe rebound hypertension due to increased sympathetic activity. The correct answer is d. d) Rebound hypertension Question 15: Epinephrine (adrenaline) is the drug of choice for the emergency therapy of anaphylactic shock due to its alpha-1 (vasoconstriction), beta-1 (cardiac stimulation), and beta-2 (bronchodilation) effects. The correct answer is d. d) Epinephrine Question 16: Tachycardia and tremors are common side effects of beta-2 adrenergic agonists like salbutamol, which are used to treat asthma, due to their systemic effects. The correct answer is a. a) Salbutamol Question 17: Salmeterol is a long-acting selective _2 agonist bronchodilator. It does not have significant anti-inflammatory properties or antihistaminic effects, and it is not a blocker. The correct answer is b. b) It is a long acting selective _2 agonist bronchodilator Question 18: Salbutamol (Albuterol) is a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA) that provides rapid bronchodilation and is the preferred drug for acute bronchospasm. The correct answer is b. b) Salbutamol (Albuterol) Question 19: Pilocarpine is a cholinomimetic (muscarinic agonist) that is used in glaucoma to cause miosis and facilitate aqueous humor outflow, thereby reducing intraocular pressure. The correct answer is c. c) Pilocarpine Question 20: Salbutamol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA) that provides the fastest symptomatic relief for acute wheezing, chest tightness, and difficulty breathing in asthma. The correct answer is c. c) Salbutamol Question 21: Thiazolidinediones (TZDs) are a class of oral antidiabetic agents that bind to and activate peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor-gamma (PPAR-) receptors, leading to improved insulin sensitivity. The correct answer is c. c) Thiazolidinediones Question 22: Sodium cromoglycate is a mast cell stabilizer used for asthma prophylaxis, but it is not a bronchodilator. Formoterol, Theophylline, and Ipratropium bromide are all bronchodilators. The correct answer is a. a) Sodium cromoglycate. Question 23: In acute severe asthma with rising CO_2 levels (indicating respiratory failure), the next appropriate action is to intensify bronchodilator therapy, typically with nebulized salbutamol and ipratropium, and consider other interventions like systemic corticosteroids or mechanical ventilation if needed. The correct answer is b. b) Nebulized salbutamol + ipratropium Question 24: Metformin is an oral hypoglycemic agent that is contraindicated in patients with renal or hepatic disease due to the increased risk of lactic acidosis. The correct answer is c. c) Metformin Question 25: Misoprostol is a prostaglandin E1 analog that is effective in healing nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)-induced gastric ulcers and preventing their recurrence, even when they don't respond to H2 blockers. The correct answer is d. d) It heals nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug induced gastric ulcer not responding to H2 blockers Question 26: Hyoscine (scopolamine) is an antimuscarinic drug that is particularly effective in preventing or reversing vestibular disturbances, especially motion sickness. The correct answer is c. c) Hyoscine (scopolamine) Question 27: Pirenzepin is a selective M1-cholinoblocker that was historically used to reduce gastric acid secretion. Ranitidine and Cimetidine are H2 blockers, and Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor. The correct answer is d. d) Pirenzepin Question 28: Hypoglycemia is a common adverse effect of sulfonylureas because they stimulate insulin secretion regardless of blood glucose levels. The correct answer is d. d) Hypoglycemia Question 29: Adrenaline (Epinephrine) is the drug of choice for severe anaphylactic shock due to its rapid and potent effects on alpha and beta adrenergic receptors, which counteract the symptoms of anaphylaxis. The correct answer is d. d) Adrenaline (Epinephrine) Question 30: Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is characterized by the autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells, leading to an absolute deficiency of insulin. The correct answer is d. d) Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus Question 31: Metformin primarily acts by increasing glucose uptake in peripheral tissues and, more importantly, by reducing hepatic glucose production. It does not primarily stimulate insulin secretion or delay carbohydrate absorption. The correct answer is a. a) Increasing glucose uptake and reducing hepatic glucose production Question 32: Glycation of proteins due to chronic hyperglycemia is the main underlying process that contributes to the development of microvascular complications of diabetes, such as retinopathy and peripheral neuropathy. The correct answer is c. c) Glycation of proteins due to hyperglycemia Question 33: The blood-brain barrier allows lipid-soluble and unionized drugs to cross easily because it is primarily composed of lipids and restricts the passage of polar, ionized, and large molecules. The correct answer is b. b) Lipid-soluble and unionized Question 34: Codeine is an opioid cough suppressant that can cause bronchoconstriction in some asthmatic patients, leading to worsening symptoms. Guaifenesin, Bromhexine, and Ambroxol are mucolytics or expectorants and do not typically worsen asthma. The correct answer is b. b) Codeine Question 35: Methylxanthines (like theophylline) inhibit phosphodiesterase, antagonize adenosine receptors, and can cause intracellular release of Ca^2+. They do not inhibit leukotriene receptors; leukotriene blockers are a separate class of drugs. The correct answer is b. b) Inhibit leucotrine receptor Question 36: Short-acting beta-agonists (SABA) are the fastest-acting bronchodilators, providing rapid relief of bronchospasm. LABAs are long-acting, and leukotriene blockers and steroids have slower onset of action. The correct answer is b. b) SABA Question 37: Cimetidine, an H2 receptor antagonist, is known to cause reversible gynecomastia as a side effect due to its antiandrogenic effects. The correct answer is b. b) Cimetidine Drop the next question! 📸