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Prove by induction the statement a + ar + ... + arⁿ−1 = a((1−rⁿ)/(1-r)) : r != 1. (b) (i) Express 1/(r(r+1)) - 1/((r+1)(r+2)) in the form A/(r(r+1)(r+2)). (ii) Hence show that sum from r=1 to n of 1/(r(r+1)(r+2)) = 1/4 - 1/(2(n+1)(n+2)).
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sum from r=1 to n of 1/(r(r+1)(r+2)) = 1/4 - 1/(2(n+1)(n+2))
Step-by-step solution
6 stepsHere's the solution for parts (b)(i) and (b)(ii).
b)(i) Express in the form .
Find a common denominator for the two fractions.
The common denominator is .
Combine the numerators.
Comparing this to , we find .
Thus, .b)(ii) Hence show that .
Use the result from part (b)(i) to express the general term of the series.
From part (b)(i), we have .
Dividing both sides by 2, we get the general term of the series:Write out the partial sum using the telescoping form.
The sum is .
Expanding the sum:
Simplify the telescoping sum.
All intermediate terms cancel out, leaving only the first and last terms:
Distribute the .
This matches the statement to be shown.
Therefore, .
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